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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part3
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 1554 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.3 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

NO.4 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.5 A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods
only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and
effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process
raises quality standards and decreases costs.

NO.6 In which of the following organizational structures does total quality management (TQM) work
best?
A. Hierarchal.
B. Teams of people from the same specialty.
C. Teams of people from different specialties.
D. Specialists working individually.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM advocates replacement of the traditional hierarchal structure with teams of people from
different specialties. This change follows from TQM's emphasis on empowering employees and
teamwork. Employees should (1) have proper training, necessary information, and the best tools;
(2) be fully engaged in the decision process; and (3) receive fair compensation. If such empowered
employees are assembled in teams of individuals with the required skills, TQM theorists believe
they will be more effective than people performing their tasks separately in a rigid structure.

NO.7 All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention,
appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
11. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or
may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly
unsuitable for measuring quality.
12. One of the main reasons that implementation of a total quality management (TQM) program
works better through the use of teams is:
A. Teams are more efficient and help an organization reduce its staffing.
B. Employee motivation is always higher for team members than for individual contributors.
C. Teams are a natural vehicle for sharing ideas, which leads to process improvement.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to reduce
staffing.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM promotes teamwork by modifying or eliminating traditional (and rigid) vertical hierarchies and
instead forming flexible groups of specialists. Quality circles, cross-functional teams, and
self-managed teams are typical formats. Teams are an excellent means of encouraging the sharing
of ideas and removing process improvement obstacles.
13. If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with
the company.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the
customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of the organization who relies on
another member's work to accomplish his/her task.
14. Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer
of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure
quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness
and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not
consider how many of the parts are defective.
15. Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the
differences
between these organizations have certain implications for quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted
by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or
services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service
enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes
maybe reworked or replaced to a customer's satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of
customers.
16. A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pay.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A preventive maintenance program reduces equipment breakdowns and repairs.
17. Under a total quality management (TQM) approach,
A. Measurement occurs throughout the process, and errors are caught and corrected at the source.
B. Quality control is performed by highly trained inspectors at the end of the production process.
C. Upper management assumes the primary responsibility for the quality of the products and
services.
D. A large number of suppliers are used in order to obtain the lowest possible prices.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes quality as a basic organizational function. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality
in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the basic principles of TQM is doing it right the
first time. Thus, errors should be caught and corrected at the source.
18. Which of the following is a key to successful total quality management (TQM)?
A. Training quality inspectors.
B. Focusing intensely on the customer.
C. Creating appropriate hierarchies to increase efficiency.
D. Establishing a well-defined quality standard, then focusing on meeting it.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM considers the supplier's
relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone in a
process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization. Thus, TQM begins with external customer requirements, identifies internal
customer-supplier relationships and requirements, and establishes requirements for external
suppliers.
19. The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective
output during and after the production process. Internal failure costs are associated with defective
output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output
discovered after it has reached the customer.
20. Statistical quality control often involves the use of control charts whose basic purpose is to:
A. Determine when accounting control procedures are not working.
B. Control labor costs in production operations.
C. Detect performance trends away from normal operations.
D. Monitor internal control applications of information technology.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Statistical control charts are graphic aids for monitoring the status of any process subject to random
variations. The chart consists of three horizontal lines plotted on a horizontal time scale. The vertical
scale represents the appropriate quantitative measure. The center line represents the average range
or overall mean for the process being controlled. The other two lines are the upper control limit and
the lower control limit. The processes are measured periodically, and the values are plotted on the
chart. If the value falls within the control limits, no action is taken. If the value falls outside the limits,
the process is considered "out of control," and an investigation is made for possible corrective
action. Another advantage of the chart is that it makes trends visible.

NO.8 Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the
organization's service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,
productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or
service is as important to customers as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely
the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job
right the first time.

NO.9 Which of the following is not required by ISO 9000 standards?
A. Establishment of a quality management system.
B. Creation of an internal audit system.
C. Consistent high quality products.
D. Onsite inspections by a registrar.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
ISO 9000 is a set of generic standards for establishing and maintaining a quality system within an
entity. The standards provide no basis forjudging the quality of the end product. The marketplace
makes this determination. The objective of ISO 9000 standards is to ensure consistent quality.

NO.10 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

IIA practice test   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

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Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Financial Services Auditor)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 511 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.2 There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Answer: A

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NO.3 All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit
activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Answer: C

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NO.4 Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve
anorganization's operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and
improve an organization's operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
Answer: A

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NO.5 The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Answer: B

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NO.6 All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor's opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors' ability to detect
material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
Answer: B

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NO.8 Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Answer: D

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NO.9 IIA's code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C

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NO.10 While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing?
Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional
practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and
experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of
activities under review
Answer: D

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NO.12 Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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NO.14 "Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not
unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments." This statement best
explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.15 Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these
services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many times will "HELLO" be printed?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
for(int i=?1; i<=10; i++)
{
if(i < 5)
continue;
else
break;
cout<<"HELLO";
}
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 20
Answer: C

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NO.3 What happens if you try to compile and run this program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
print("Test");
return 0;
}
void print(int c[])
{
cout<<c;
}
A. It prints: Test
B. Compilation fails
C. Program terminates abnormally
D. None of these
Answer: B

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Exam Name: PayPal (PayPal Certified Developer: Payments)
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NO.1 What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer's shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: D

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NO.2 Sam uses Adaptive Payments' Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
"guest payment" ("guest checkout"): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender's email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer's credit card information in his site/application.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 What does "authorization" mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer's credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer's consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer's credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D

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NO.5 When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender's PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver's account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender's bank to clear it first.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
Answer: D

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NO.8 When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL
E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.9 If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
Answer: B

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NO.11 When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
Answer: A

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NO.12 When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
Answer: E,F

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NO.14 When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant's PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant's account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B

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Exam Code: PEGACCA
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC Certified CPM Architect)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following would you configure in order to specify the subset of properties that
can be included within dialog scripts. (Choose One)
A. Interaction driver rule
B. Decision table rule within the dialog class
C. Data source rule
D. Map value rule within the dialog class
Answer: C

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NO.2 When designing UI components, which of the following is NOT a best practice? (Choose One)
A. Know the standard screen resolution for end user desktops
B. Place required data entry so that the user can tab to complete them
C. Within process screens, use conditional displays
D. Use bold text and many colors to make important fields stand out
E. Avoid non-standard acronyms and abbreviations in captions
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following is not a valid result type when using the CPM portal search
function? (Choose One)
A. Knowledge content rules
B. Service item work objects/cases
C. External data sources such as accounts or contacts
D. Workbaskets (work queues)
Answer: D

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NO. 9 True or False, Flow-action-based dialog requires that a dialog rule be referenced from the
assignment and flow action within the workflow diagram.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of suggesting processes to a user during a customer
interaction? (Choose One)
A. Reduced user training time
B. Improved user productivity
C. Improved customer satisfaction
D. None. All of the above are benefits
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following steps is necessary in order to configure CPM portal search for an
external data source (such as account data from a legacy system)? (Choose One)
A. Enable PRPC work indexing on your system
B. Specify a search retrieval activity on the CPM data source rule
C. Modify the list view rule used for portal search to include your data source
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following CANNOT be configured using the CPM Configuration Tools Wizard?
(Choose One)
A. Dialog scripts
B. Suggested processes
C. Coaching tips
D. Association of knowledge content to a user screen
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a best practice in CPM dialog management ________? (Choose
One)
A. Dialog rules should be contained in a separate RuleSet from other configuration such as flows
and flow actions
B. Dialog scripts should contain what to say; not what to do
C. Dialog scripts should include references to customer data
D. CSRs should be encouraged to configure personal dialog scripts
Answer: D

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NO.7 The text that displays to the user as the task name within a CPM Interaction Driver category
list is
__________. (Choose One)
A. The HeaderTitle field value that is defined within the service item class
B. The short description of the starting workflow for the service item
C. The short description of the Intent Task rule
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 True or False, To maintain backward compatibility with future CPM releases, you should not
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been
posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: B

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NO.2 For an attribute to be loaded on a catalog/product object, which two of the following conditions must be
satisfied? (Choose two)
A. The eav_attribute table must contain a row defining the attribute's properties and its entity type.
B. The attribute must have a backend model configured in the XML config.
C. The attribute must be part of the attribute set pertaining to the object being loaded.
D. There must be a record of the attribute on the catalog_product_super_atti:ibute table.
E. There must be a column added to the catalog_product_entity table.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 How is the sort order in which total models collect their values specified?
A. The sort order is specified in the admin configuration under Sales > "Checkout Totals Sort Order".
B. The sort order is specified in the system configuration under global/sales/quote/totals/ [total_code] with
<before> and <after> nodes.
C. The sort order is defined by the module loading order as specified by the children of the modules/
[module_name]/depends configuration node.
D. The sort order is specified by the collect method in each total model.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following EAV attribute types may be used for layered navigation in native Magento?
A. varchar
B. enum
C. option
D. union
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have a product collection and want to add a filter to get all products whose name starts with Test or
whose price is 0.00.
Which of the following statements would add that OR condition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend.?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. text
B. textarea
C. select
D. multiselect
E. date
F. gallery
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which method is called on a shipping carrier model to fetch a list of all available shipping methods,
along with the rates associated with them, for a quote address?
A. collectShippingRates()
B. getAllowedMethodsO
C. getShippingRates ()
D. getAvailableRates()
E. collectRates()
Answer: E

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NO.11 You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct
XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which table is used for calculating a new increment ID for an order?
A. sales_flat_order_increment
B. eav_entity_store
C. core_increment
D. core_config_data
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _isAllowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 The final price for the product on the product view page is__________.
A. taken from the catalog_product_index_price table
B. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_idx table
C. taken from the catalog_product_index_price_f inal_idx table
D. calculated on-the-fly on php-level
E. pre-calculated in the products price attribute
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which one of the following API methods exists in Magento?
A. catalog_category.save
B. catalog_product, items
C. catalog_product_attribute_set.update
D. catalog_product.info
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CTAL-TTA_001
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.5 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.7 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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Exam Code: MSC-121
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.4 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.11 In radio frequency transmission the term Modulation Coding Scheme (MCS) is defined by which of the
following?
A. The combination of digital modulation method and a forward error correction mechanism.
B. A set of AES/CCMP cipher modes which assure integrity of an OFDM transmission.
C. The use of an encryption algorithm to securely code a modulated signal before transmission.
D. A multiplexing technique that uses orthogonal codes in place of X.509 digital certificates for message
validation.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are designing a new 802.11 installation that will be built on an IEEE 802.3 10/100/1000
BaseT-backbone infrastructure. All IEEE 802.11n access points and VoIP phones will be IEEE
802.3 Power over Ethernet (PoE) powered devices. The 802.11n access points will utilize dual band 3X3
MIMO and require 802.3at PoE. Which is a true statement regarding a WLAN deployment of this nature?
A. This installation can only use endpoint Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE) devices.
B. Only IEEE 802.3af PoE devices can operate on a Gigabit network infrastructure.
C. VoIP phones and access points cannot be located on the same access layer PoE switches.
D. An accurate power sourcing equipment (PSE) power budget must be performed.
Answer: D

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