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Exam Code: 156-215
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 . There is a Web server behind your perimeter Security Gateway. You need to protect the server from
network attackers, who create scripts that force your Web server to send user credentials or identities to
other Web servers. Which box do you check in the SmartDashboard Web Intelligence tab?
A . Command Injection protection
B . SQL Injection protection
C . HTTP protocol inspection protection
D . Cross Site Scripting protection
Answer : D

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.2 . When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from
that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any
rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Create a "FW SAM" rule in SmartView Tracker > Tools menu.
C . Select "block intruder" from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.
D . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
Answer : D

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.3 . Assuming the appropriate SmartView Monitor settings have been selected in SmartDashboard, how
do you use SmartView Monitor to compile data for packet size distribution for your company's Internet
activity during production hours? By:
A . selecting the "Traffic" view in SmartView Monitor to generate graphs showing the packet sizes.
B . selecting the "Tunnels" view, and generating a report on the statistics
C . configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when large packets pass through the
Gateway
D . viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
Answer : A

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NO.4 . You are working in a large hospital, together with three other Security Administrators. How do you
use SmartConsole to check changes to rules or object properties other administrators made?:
A . Eventia Monitor
B . Eventia Tracker
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Monitor
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.5 . Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A . Anna has forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
B . Users must use SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
C . Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
D . Anna checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.6 . What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A . Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
B . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
C . Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D . Place a static route on the firewall from the valid IP address to the internal web server.
Answer : A

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NO.7 You are a security consultant for a hospital. You are asked to create some type of authentication rule on
the VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway, to allow doctors to update patients' records via HTTP from various
workstations. Which authentication method should you use?
A . User Authentication
B . SecureID Authentication
C . Client Authentication
D . LDAP Authentication
Answer : A

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NO.8 . After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on
your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped in the due
anti-spoofing protections.
Which of the following is the most likely cause
A . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Uncheck the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
B . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
DMZ interface is set to "Internal Network defined by IP and Mask". Check the Global Properties setting
"Translate destination on client side".
C . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is unchecked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "Others +". Change topology to "External"
D . The Global Properties setting "Translate destination on client side" is checked. The topology on the
external interface is set to "External". Change topology to "Others +".
Answer : B

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NO.9 . All VPN-1 NGX Security Servers can perform User authentication with the exception of one. Which of
the Security Servers cannot perform User authentication?
A . FTP
B . HTTP
C . SMTP
D . RLOGIN
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.10 . In SmartDashboard, you configure 45 MB as the required free hard-disk space to accommodate logs.
What can you do to keep old log files, when free space falls below 45 MB?
A . Do nothing. The SmartCenter Server archives old logs to another directory.
B . Use FTP to send the logs to another server.
C . Use the fwm logexport command to export the old log files to other location.
D . Define a secondary SmartCenter Server as a log server, to transfer the old logs.
Answer : B

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NO.11 . VPN-1 NGX uses ___________ to retrieve the Interface Name, IP Address, and Network Mask when
an administrator clicks the GET button in the Interfaces tab of an Externally Managed VPN Gateway
object.
A . ioctl
B . Control Connection
C . SNMP
D . URI
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.12 . What do you use to view a VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway's status, including CPU use, amount of
virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A . SmartUpdate
B . SmartView Monitor
C . SmartView Tracker
D . SmartView Status
Answer : B

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.13 . Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change
orders, and check order status.
You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web servers were protected
from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks.
The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable.
You have enabled every protection in the Web Intelligence branch, configured the protections to apply to
all HTTP traffic, and installed the Security Policy.
What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A . Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
B . The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
C . Configure a URI to strip Script tags from HTTP requests, and use it in a rule allowing HTTP traffic to
the web servers.
D . Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.14 . Which VPN-1 NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of
the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A . fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
B . Database Revision Control
C . Policy Package management
D . upgrade_export/upgrade_import
Answer : C

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.15 . Larry is the Security Administrator for the CodeMore software-development company. To isolate the
corporate network from the developers' network, Larry installs an internal Security Gateway. Larry wants
to optimize the performance of this Gateway.
Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway's performance?
A . Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages.
B . Use domain objects in rules, where possible.
C . Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules.
D . Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base.
Answer : A

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.16 . MegaCorp's security infrastructure separates Security Gateways geographically. You must request a
central license for one remote Security Gateway. You must request a central license:
A . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via SmartUpdate.
B . using your SmartCenter Server's IP address. Attach the license to the remote Gateway via
SmartUpdate.
C . using the remote Gateway's IP address. Apply the license locally with the cplic put command.
D . for the Gateways' IP addresses. Apply the licenses on the SmartCenter Server with the cprlic put
command.
Answer : B

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.17 . What do you configure to launch an application when certain traffic goes through certain rules?
A . SNMP trap alert script
B . User-defined alert script
C . Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts.
D . Pop-up alert script
Answer : B

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.18 Which type of VPN-1 NGX Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A . HTTP Security Server
B . SMTP Security Server
C . HTTPS Security Server
D . NNTP Security Server
Answer : B

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.19 . You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object "internal-networks"
includes networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume "Accept ICMP requests" is enabled as before last
in the Global Properties.
A . dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule.
B . dropped by the last implicit rule.
C . dropped by rule 0.
D . accepted by rule 1.
Answer : D

CheckPoint   156-215   156-215   156-215 answers real questions   156-215

NO.20 . You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker. How can you
see the addresses you have blocked?
A . Run fw sam M ij all on the gateway.
B . Run fwm blocked_view.
C . In SmartView Status click the Blocked Intruder tab.
D . In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab, and the actively blocked connections display.
Answer : A

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Exam Code: 156-510
Exam Name: CheckPoint (VPN-1/FireWall-1 Management III)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How much memory is reserved for the VPN-1/FW-1 kernel on a Nokia platform?
A. 5 MB
B. 15 MB
C. 3 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: A

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NO.2 CPMAD will try to connect to the LEA server a number of times before giving up. What
are the default values for the number of connection attempts and the time interval between
them?
A. 20 times with 30secs between attempts
B. 10 times with 60secs between attempts
C. 5 times with 60secs between attempts
D. 10 times with 10secs between attempts
Answer: B

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NO.3 How often will SecuRemote check for the availability of a VPN gateway by default?
A. 60 secs
B. 120 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 90 secs
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is true about detecting "blocked connection port scanning"?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 In a load sharing MEP environment accessed by secuRemote.What is true about gateway
selection?
A. SecuRemote will choose the gateway closest to the server
B. SecuRemote will use the first gateway to respond
C. SecuRemote will chose the gateway randomly
D. SecuRemote will prefer its primary gateway if both respond
Answer: C

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NO.6 By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do
with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

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NO.7 Addresses allocated from an IP pool remain allocated for a configurable period, even after
all connections to that address are closed. What is the default time before the address is
returned to the pool?
A. 120 mins
B. 180mins
C. 30 mins
D. 60 mins
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which are two network related conditions required by high availability in SEP VPN's?
A. The gateways must be synchronized
B. Traffic must be redirected correctly to the backup gateway when the primary gateway fails
C. The gateways must use identical MAC addresses
D. NTP (network time protocol) must be configured between both gateways
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 When using IP pools for MEP VPN access, where would you specify the pool to be used for
a particular gateway?
A. The NAT screen of the gateway's properties configuration
B. The ADVANCED screen of the gateway's properties configuration
C. The VPN screen of the gateway's properties screen
D. The TOPOLOGY screen of the gateway's properties configuration
Answer: A

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NO.10 You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is true when using SEP high availability encryption topologies?
A. Gateways must use the same FW-1 build level
B. All of these
C. You must use a distributed installation of VPN-1/FW-1
D. Gateways must use the same platform and OS
E. Gateways must run identical policies
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following should be disabled in a Windows NT platform when installing
FW-1?
A. WINS
B. RPC
C. NetBIOS
D. All of them
E. DHCP relay
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-510   156-510

NO.13 In a resilient MEP topology, what mechanism can be used by SecuRemote to determine
that the primary gateway is still available?
A. TCP Ping
B. TCP keepalives
C. RDP status queries
D. UDP ping
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-510   156-510 answers real questions

NO.14 If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two types of overlapping encryption domains are supported by FW-1?
A. Partial overlap
B. Full overlap
C. Proper subset
D. Partial subset
Answer: B, C

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NO.16 When making changes to users in an LDAP server using the policy editor
usermanager, when will the changes take effect?
A. After the user database is downloaded
B. When you log out of policy editor
C. After a policy download
D. When cache times out
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.17 What does LDAP stand for?
A. Link level Direct Access Process
B. Layered Directory Administration Protocol
C. Layer Dependent Administration process
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself
Answer: D

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NO.20 When installing FW-1 on a Windows NT platform, what state should IP forwarding be in
for correct FW-1 operation?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-815.70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.2 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

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NO.4 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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NO.7 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.9 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.10 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

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NO.11 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R70/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/
Answer: A

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NO.12 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

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NO.14 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R70 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

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NO.16 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R70/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

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NO.17 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.19 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

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NO.20 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-815.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
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Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.3 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

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NO.5 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

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NO.6 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R71/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

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NO.7 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R71/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/
Answer: A

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NO.8 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

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NO.10 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.12 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.13 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

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NO.14 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

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NO.15 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.17 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-915-71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71 Update)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 312 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which at the followingcommands showsfull synchronization status?
A. cphaprob-ilist.
B. fw ctliflist
C. Fw hastat
D. cphaprob aif
Answer: A

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NO.2 What command will allow you to disable sync on a cluster firewall member?
A. fw ctl setaync 0
B. fw ctl syncsatat stop
C. fw ctl syncstat off
D. fw ctl setsync off
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is calling saying one member's status is Down.What will you check?
A. cphaprob list (verify what critical device is down)
B. Fw ctl debug m cluster + forward(forwarding layer debug)
C. tcpdump/snoop (CCP traffic)
D. fw ctlpstat (check sync)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT an Smartevent event-triggered Automatic Reaction?
A. Mail
B. Block Access
C. External Script
D. SNMP Trap
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using ClusterXl in load sharing, what method is used be default?
A. IPs, SPIs
B. IPs, Ports, SPIs
C. IPs
D. IPs, Ports
Answer: C

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NO.6 Whichof theft flowing is TRUE concerning unnumberedVPNTunnelInterfaces (VTIs)?
A. VTTs cannot be assigned a proxy interface
B. Local IP addresses are not configured, remoteIPaddresses are configured
C. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback
D. VTIs are only supported on the IPSO Operating System
Answer: B

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NO.7 By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security
Management Server, when:
A. The Security Policy is saved.
B. The Security Policy is installed.
C. The user database is installed.
D. The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator MUST:
A. Create aninternal userin the admin portal.
B. Install an R71 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate fromSmart Dashboard
D. Store the clientcertificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.9 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security Gateways
sglondon, sgla, andsgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York DMZ. How is this
possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques likeusing escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands.It is also possible that thereare entry points not shown in the network layout, like
rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network without
anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature updates
and well-turned anomaly algorithms.Even if this is accomplished, notechnology can offer 100 %
protection.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The default port for browser access to the Management Portal is
A. 4433
B. 4343
C. 8080
D. 443
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.12 To force clients to use integritySecurity Workspace when accessing sensitive applications, the
Administrator can configure Connectra:
A. Via protection levels
B. To implement integrity Clientless Security
C. To force the user to re-authenticate at login
D. Without a special setting. Secure Workspace is automatically configured.
Answer: A

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NO.13 YoujustupgradedtoR71 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want toenable all critical protections
while keeping the rate of false positively verylow.How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is basedon policies, but it has no abilitytocalculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of falsepositives.
B. This can t be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes ahigh rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the abilitytoactivate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense,this can be achieved by activating all the criticalchecks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.14 After repairing a SmartWorkflow session:
A. The session moves to status Repaired and a new session can be started
B. The session moves to status Awaiting Repair and must be resubmitted
C. The session is continued with status Not approved and a new session must be started
D. The session is discarded and a new session is automatically started
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which SmartEvent, what is the Correlation Unit's function?
A. Invoke and define automatic reactions and add events to the database
B. Assign seventy levels to events
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy
D. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns
Answer: D

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NO.16 To change the default port of the Management Portal,
A. Editthe masters.conffileon the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin.conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initializeSIC.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is the default port few Management Portal?
A. 4434
B. 443
C. 444
D. 4433
Answer: D

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NO.18 What SmartConsole application allows you to change the Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartEvent Server
D. Smart Dashboard
Answer: A

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NO.19 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall.?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fwkernel
D. fwver -k
Answer: D

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NO.20 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view
of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve
that?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.21 Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?
A. The Smartview Monitor
B. The standalone SmartProvisioning server
C. The Security Management server or CMA
D. They are fetched locally from the individual device
Answer: C

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NO.22 John isconfiguring anew R17 Gateway cluster but he cannot configurethecluster asThird Party IP
Clusteringin Gateway Cluster Properties:
What s happening?
A. Johnis not using thirdparty hardware asIP Clustering ispart of Check Point sIPAppliance.
B. Third Party Clustering is not available for R71 Security Gateways.
C. ClusterXLneeds to be unsetected to permit 3nd party clustering configuration.
D. John has an invalid ClusterXL license
Answer: C

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NO.23 Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If
you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?
A. Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is
needed.
B. In SmartUpdate, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel instances.
C. Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R71.
D. Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.
Answer: D

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NO.24 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access inSmart
Dashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.25 What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (ospp, RIP, etc) on SecurelPlatform Pro?
A. gated
B. arouted
C. routerd
D. There s no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.
Answer: A

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NO.26 A customer calls saying that a load-sharing cluster shows drops with the error First packet is
notSYN.Completethe followingsentence. I will recommend:
A. Change the load on each member.
B. configuring flush and ack
C. turning off SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
D. turning on SDF (Sticky Decision Function)
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.28 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicagousing Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicagois not
detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and
determine how Mattcorrectsthe problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-ChicagoSecurity Gateway to theChicago_Profile.
B. Matt should theChicago_Profile to useProtect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create theChicago_Profile and select Activeprotections manually instead of per
theIPSPolicy.
D. Mattshouldactivatethe Chicago_Profileasitis currently notactivated.
Answer: A

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NO.29 You have a High Availability ClusterXL configuration.Machines arenot synchronizer. What happens to
connections on failover?
A. It is not possible to configure High Availabilitythat is not synchronized.
B. B. Old connections are lost but can be reestablished.
C. Connection cannot be established until cluster members are fully synchronized.
D. Old connections are lost but are automatically recovered whenever the failed machine
recovers.
Answer: B

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NO.30 When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Client Auth or Session Auth connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member
fails.
B. The stare of connection using resources is maintained by a Security Server, so there
connections cannot be synchronized.
C. Only cluster members running on me same OS platform can be synchronized.
D. In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly
working synchronization.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Named expressions enable you to:
A. Examine core components.
B. Define reusable expressions.
C. Define the permissions on reports
D. Define ODBC user directory attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature applies to application roles?
A. They are limited to a single directory or directory type.
B. They define which resources, or group of resources, an application can access.
C. They are a logical representation of a resource and how CA SiteMinder protects it.
D. They define a set of users who have access to an application resource or a group of application
resources.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When using the Active Directory namespace, which Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (IDAP)
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A. IDAP paging
B. IDAP referrals
C. IDAP sorting operations
D. SSL connectivity using a native Windows Certificate database
Answer: D

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Exam Name: CA (CA Clarity PPM v12 Professional Exam )
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NO.1 If the output file of a XOG write shows an updated record, what does it mean?
A. The object or instance did not exist in the database.
B. The object or instance was deleted from the database.
C. The object or instance already existed in the database.
D. The object or instance did not have a unique ID in the database.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which functions apply to an NQSL query? (Choose two)
A. Execute XOG writes.
B. Filter on instances or object code.
C. Feed portlets with the required data.
D. Fetch data from multiple tables and offer it as a Web Service.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You need to check the NTFS permissions for the folder in which the CA Productivity Accelerator (CAPA)
developer application files are installed. Which permissions should be set for this folder.? (Choose three)
A. List
B. Read
C. Delete
D. Modify
E. Execute
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 In CA Clarity, you can group related pages under a single menu item using:
A. portlet pages
B. pages with tabs
C. pages without tab
D. pages with a Content action
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which standard view is used to configure the grid listing of all the instances of an object that the user
has rights to see?
A. List Filter View
B. Properties View
C. List Column View
D. Edit Layouts View
Answer: C

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NO.1 To access the server page that lists the XML Open Gateway (XOG) invoke action web services,
you specify the following URL:
http://<servername:port>/niku/wsdl/InvokeAction
Which types of invoke action web services are listed here? (Choose three)
A. Process
B. Flush cache
C. Aggregate data
D. Productivity data
E. Synchronize external links
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 CA Clarity PPM v13 portlets
A. Can use an object, a system, or a query as a data provider.
B. Use multiple dimensions if created using an object data provider.
C. Include restricted portlets, such as the Action Item portlet, which only administrators can
change.
D. Include new interactive functionality, which uses Microsoft Silverlight to build complex
visualizations.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which feature characterizes NSQL multi-dimensional queries?
A. The data provider is always an object.
B. The related portlets have a Y-axis subpage.
C. They enable more complex charts such as Donut charts.
D. They always include change_key and merge_key attributes.
Answer: B

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6. You need to export a single portlet that is contained within a dashboard. Which limitations do
you
need to consider? (Choose three)
A. The export will always be Fit to Page.
B. The Export to PDF option must be selected.
C. The Export to PowerPoint option will only permit 30 records.
D. The dashboard template must be Application Page Template.
E. The dashboard type must be Page with Tabs or Page without Tabs.
Answer: A,D,E

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7. The CA Clarity PPM bundle includes CA Business Intelligence (CABI) software. Which features
characterize CABI? (Choose three)
A. Support for cached content
B. Component-based content development
C. A built-in INSolve Functional Intelligence QuickStart Pack
D. An InfoView Business Relationship Manager (BRM) module for complex report design
E. A built-in paging mechanism to help ensure the scalable delivery of large volumes of content
Answer: A,B,E

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8. Before saving a Generic Execution Language (GEL) script in a process, it is recommended that
you:
A. Validate the GEL script
B. Remove all FTP Library tags
C. Delete all namespace declarations
D. Test the GEL script in a duplicate process
Answer: D

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9. Which technology is Generic Execution Language (GEL) based on?
A. Oracle Java
B. CA Clarity PPM
C. Apache Jakarta Jelly
D. SAP Business Objects
Answer: C

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10. Out of the box, which object actions can you create in CA Clarity PPM v13? (Choose three)
A. Run a stock report
B. Link to Google search
C. Delete an active service
D. Run the Delete Investments job
E. Move tasks across or between projects
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 The creation of a grid portlet requires a data provider. Data providers can be: (Choose three)
A. Filters
B. Events
C. Objects
D. Systems
E. NSQL queries
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 In the CA Clarity PPM Process Engines event flow, what is the function of the Wakeup Signal?
A. Displays detailed Process Engines instance information
B. Triggers the Background Engine as soon an event is fired
C. Keeps track of all the executing process, controls the event flow, and helps manage the
Workflow Execution
D. Interacts with the CA Clarity PPM database on a consistent basis to proceed with the workflow
steps or instructions
Answer: B

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