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Exam Code: ASC-091
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Protection 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.4 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.6 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.7 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.16 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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NO.17 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.19 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.20 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-090
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 156 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.4 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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NO.5 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

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NO.9 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

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NO.16 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.18 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ASC-094
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 77 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-116
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.2 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A, E

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NO.4 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.8 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB . Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.11 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C, E

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NO.12 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to
communicate back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored.?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.18 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

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NO.19 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-315
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 167 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.7 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.11 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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NO.13 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.15 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.20 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-352
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.2 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.18 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-173
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A company expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 environment by adding a new media server. What
is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server
information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. run the install_bp script
D. run the install_client_files script
Answer: B

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NO.2 A backup job failed. The backup administrator needs to collect log files for the services and daemons
that use Unified-style logging. Which step must be performed by the backup administrator before sending
the collected log files to Symantec technical support for analysis?
A. create log directories for the Symantec NetBackup services and daemons
B. set the Global logging level setting to a value of 5
C. run nbsu on the master server
D. run nbcplogs on the master server
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.4 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.15 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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